a nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking the pulse before taking digoxin is crucial as it helps monitor the heart rate, as digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect. Option B is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C is incorrect because digoxin should be held and the healthcare provider should be contacted if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with food due to decreased absorption.

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