Nursing Elites

1. What is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain?

• A. Administer analgesics
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Provide non-pharmacological interventions
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain as it directly targets the pain receptors and provides relief. Repositioning the patient may help in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management but might not provide immediate relief. Administering IV fluids is not a standard intervention for acute pain unless dehydration is contributing to the pain.

2. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

3. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours
• B. Place the client in a supine position while resting
• C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours
• D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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