Nursing Elites

1. What is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• D. Check oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath because it helps alleviate the patient's symptoms by improving oxygenation. Providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions such as repositioning the patient, checking for abnormal breath sounds, or assessing oxygen saturation. While these actions are important, ensuring the patient has an adequate oxygen supply is crucial in the initial management of shortness of breath.

2. What should be monitored when administering opioids to a patient?

• A. Monitor blood pressure
• B. Monitor respiratory rate
• C. Monitor heart rate
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering opioids, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression, which is a serious side effect of opioid use. Monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to assess a patient's overall condition, but they are not the primary focus when administering opioids.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 60/min.
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum potassium 4 mEq/L.
• D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is a finding that the nurse should report to the provider when caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypotension, so a low blood pressure reading should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 60/min is considered normal, but any further decrease should be monitored. A serum potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal range. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is typically considered normal as well.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased creatinine
• B. Increased hemoglobin
• C. Increased bicarbonate
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased creatinine. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter waste effectively, leading to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. This results in increased creatinine levels in laboratory tests. Choice B, increased hemoglobin, is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice C, increased bicarbonate, is also not a common finding in chronic kidney disease; in fact, metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels is more common. Choice D, increased calcium, is not expected in chronic kidney disease; instead, calcium levels may be low due to impaired kidney function.

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