ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Monitor edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide information about stress management.
- B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
- B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
- C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Turn the client every 2 hours
- B. Use a donut-shaped cushion when sitting
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.
5. A client who is 2 hours postoperative following a kidney biopsy is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
- B. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- D. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range and should be reported following a kidney biopsy to check for bleeding. Decreased hemoglobin levels could indicate internal bleeding, which is a significant concern postoperatively. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is also within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. A respiratory rate of 16/min and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are both normal findings postoperatively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access