ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the child to handle the IV supplies to become familiar with them.
- B. Tell the child they will feel discomfort during the catheter insertion.
- C. Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion.
- D. Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because informing the child that they will feel discomfort during catheter insertion is crucial to prepare them for the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as children should not handle medical supplies. Choice C is inappropriate as using a restraint can cause anxiety and fear in the child. Choice D is not necessary as having parents present can provide comfort and support to the child during the procedure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Vomiting.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Epigastric pain.
- D. Contractions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Crackles in the lung bases
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Heart rate of 88/min
- D. Frequent productive cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?
- A. Calcium carbonate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Epoetin alfa
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.
5. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who has just returned from surgery?
- A. Monitor respiratory rate
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check the surgical site
- D. Monitor heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. This assessment is essential as it ensures that the patient is breathing adequately post-surgery. Maintaining a patent airway and adequate oxygenation are the top priorities in the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring blood pressure, checking the surgical site, or monitoring heart rate are important assessments but are not the priority immediately upon the patient's return from surgery.
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