ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer antihistamines
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.
2. A client with a colostomy needs optimal skin integrity. What action should the nurse take to promote this?
- A. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
- B. Change the colostomy pouch every 3 days.
- C. Use a barrier cream to protect the skin from the pouch contents.
- D. Cleanse the stoma with hydrogen peroxide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To promote optimal skin integrity in a client with a colostomy, using a barrier cream to protect the skin from the irritating effects of the colostomy pouch contents is essential. Cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol (Choice A) can be too harsh and drying for the skin. Changing the colostomy pouch every 3 days (Choice B) is important for hygiene but using a barrier cream is more directly related to skin protection. Cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be too abrasive for the sensitive stoma area.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- D. Notify the provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.
5. When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.
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