Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.

2. What is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's level of consciousness?

• A. Use the Glasgow Coma Scale
• B. Assess the patient's orientation
• C. Check pupillary response
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye response, verbal response, and motor response. This scale provides a numeric value that helps in determining the severity of brain injury or altered mental status. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while assessing the patient's orientation, checking pupillary response, and monitoring vital signs are important components of a comprehensive patient assessment, they do not specifically target the assessment of consciousness level, which is best done using the Glasgow Coma Scale.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly."
• B. "I will keep my blood glucose level between 200 and 250 mg/dL."
• C. "I will take my insulin at the same time each day."
• D. "I will eat three large meals each day."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.

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