HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
- C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
- D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.
2. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
- C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.
3. When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Insert the catheter at a 45° angle
- B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position
- C. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
- D. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.
4. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
- C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
- D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access