HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “I never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. You should comply with the request
- B. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
- C. I will call your family to discuss this
- D. It’s not a big deal; just remove them
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to acknowledge and address the client's concerns empathetically. By expressing understanding and asking if the client is worried about being seen without their teeth, the nurse shows empathy and attempts to alleviate the client's anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings. Choice C is inappropriate as it does not directly address the client's agitation. Choice D is not the best response as it minimizes the client's feelings and does not provide emotional support.
2. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.
3. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
- B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
- C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
- D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acupuncture has been effective for the client previously, supporting continued use.
4. An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
- A. Examine the elbow
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Apply a warm compress to the elbow
- D. Assess the client’s range of motion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate initial action for the nurse is to examine the elbow. This step is crucial to assess the site of pain, identify any visible signs of injury or inflammation, and determine the cause of the discomfort. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should come after a thorough assessment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) might provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Assessing the client’s range of motion (Choice D) is important but would come after the initial examination to further evaluate the elbow joint.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue to measure the client's vitals every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Notify the nursing manager.
- B. Document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon.
- C. Administer additional fluids as per standard procedure.
- D. Call the surgeon back immediately to ensure timely intervention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option B, which is to document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon. By documenting the client's condition and the communication with the surgeon, the nurse ensures legal protection and maintains continuity of care. This documentation serves as evidence of the actions taken, communication exchanged, and the rationale behind decisions made. Option A, notifying the nursing manager, may not be necessary at this stage unless there are specific institutional protocols requiring it. Administering additional fluids without further clarification may not be appropriate and could worsen the client's condition if not indicated. Calling the surgeon back immediately (option D) may disrupt the agreed-upon plan of action and fail to follow the surgeon's instructions of reassessment after an hour.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99