hesi fundamentals exam HESI Fundamentals Exam - Nursing Elites
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HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

2. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

3. A client is being taught about medications at discharge. Which statement should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adding liquid medication to pudding can help with swallowing difficulties, demonstrating understanding of the instructions. Options A and C are incorrect as altering time-release capsules and enteric-coated pills is not recommended in medication administration. Option A is incorrect as time-release capsules should not be opened and sprinkled on food, affecting their efficacy. Option C is incorrect as crushing enteric-coated pills can affect their absorption. Option D is unrelated to medication administration and does not demonstrate understanding of the instructions.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A client is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During the anger stage of grief, it is essential for the nurse to reassure the client that anger is a normal reaction to a cancer diagnosis. This validation of the client's emotions can help in providing emotional support. Choice A is incorrect because discussing risk factors for colorectal cancer does not address the client's current emotional state. Choice B is incorrect because focusing teaching on the client's future management does not directly address the client's need for emotional support in the present. Choice C is incorrect because providing written information about loss and grief phases is not as immediately comforting as directly reassuring the client about his feelings of anger.

Similar Questions

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