HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
- B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
- D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.
2. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
- B. Confusion immediately following the injury
- C. Headache that resolves quickly
- D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?
- A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
- B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
- C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
- D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.
4. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
- B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
- C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
- D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.
5. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity
- B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds
- C. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention
- D. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible complications and requires immediate assessment. Choice B is incorrect because although a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning, abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus takes priority. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal distention, though indicative of an obstruction, is not as urgent as the sign of abdominal rigidity. Choice D is incorrect as the drainage of greenish fluid from a nasogastric tube in a client with a small bowel obstruction, while concerning, does not present as immediate a threat as the abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus.
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