HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
- D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.
2. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:
- A. On an empty stomach
- B. At the same time each evening
- C. Evenly spaced around the clock
- D. As needed when the client complains of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.
3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event.
- B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
- C. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.
- D. Administer prescribed medications to manage symptoms.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assisting the client in developing coping strategies is an appropriate intervention for managing PTSD. This approach helps the client build resilience and learn how to effectively cope with symptoms. Choice A, encouraging the client to talk about the traumatic event, may not be appropriate as it can potentially re-traumatize the client. Referring the client to a PTSD support group, as in choice C, can be beneficial but may not be the most immediate intervention. Administering medications, as in choice D, is important in some cases, but focusing on coping strategies should be prioritized as a holistic approach to managing PTSD.
4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
- D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.
5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client to describe the voices and what they are saying.
- B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
- C. Encourage the client to engage in reality-based activities.
- D. Ask the client to focus on positive thoughts instead of the voices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage them to engage in reality-based activities. This intervention helps manage auditory hallucinations by redirecting the client's focus away from the hallucinations. Choice A is not recommended as it may exacerbate the hallucinations or distress the client. Choice B is incorrect because denying the reality of the voices can invalidate the client's experiences. Choice D, asking the client to focus on positive thoughts, may not be effective in addressing the auditory hallucinations directly.
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