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Nursing Elites

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HESI Mental Health

1. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is (B) Identification. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, which is a form of identification, a defense mechanism where an individual adopts the characteristics or behaviors of someone they admire or view as powerful. (A) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, not imitation. (C) Introjection is the internalization of external qualities or attributes, not imitation. (D) Repression is the unconscious exclusion of painful thoughts or memories from awareness, which is not demonstrated in this case.

2. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

3. A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.

4. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit after a suicide attempt. The client frequently expresses feelings of emptiness and fears of abandonment. What is the most therapeutic nursing approach for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing approach for a client with borderline personality disorder, who frequently expresses feelings of emptiness and fears of abandonment, is to set clear and consistent boundaries while providing empathy. This approach helps manage the client's fear of abandonment and feelings of emptiness, which are common in borderline personality disorder. Option A may overwhelm the client in a group setting without addressing their specific needs. Option C, while well-intentioned, may not fully address the underlying issues and may create dependency. Option D delves into the client's past relationships, which may be inappropriate and trigger emotional distress in a vulnerable client.

5. Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the group to handle the situation is the best action as it promotes group dynamics and empowerment, especially since the group is in the working phase. Talking to the participant individually (A) might be seen as manipulative. Reminding the participant (B) can come across as dictatorial and may not address the underlying issue. Asking the participant to join another group (D) does not address the problem at hand and avoids the opportunity for growth and conflict resolution within the current group.

Similar Questions

Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?
The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?
A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being taught about buspirone (BuSpar) by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
A male client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which symptom is a sign of severe alcohol withdrawal?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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