HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
- B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
- C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.
2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
- B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
- C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
- D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.
3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
- C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
- D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to attend at least one group session.
- B. Respect the client's wish to remain isolated.
- C. Arrange for individual therapy sessions.
- D. Offer the client a list of activities to choose from.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.
5. A client is responding to auditory hallucinations and shakes a fist at a nurse and says, 'Back off, witch!' The nurse follows the client into the day room. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Sit down in a chair near the client.
- B. Position self within an arm's length of the client.
- C. Ensure that there is physical space between the nurse and client.
- D. Move to a position that allows the client to be closest to the room's door.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In situations where a client is responding to auditory hallucinations and displaying aggressive behavior, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure physical space between themselves and the client. This action can help de-escalate the situation and prevent any potential harm to both the nurse and the client. Sitting down near the client (Choice A) may escalate the situation by invading the client's personal space. Positioning oneself within an arm's length of the client (Choice B) may increase the risk of physical confrontation. Moving closer to the room's door (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can block the client's exit route and escalate the situation further. Therefore, ensuring physical space between the nurse and the client (Choice C) is the most appropriate action to promote safety and prevent escalation.
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