HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:
- A. On an empty stomach
- B. At the same time each evening
- C. Evenly spaced around the clock
- D. As needed when the client complains of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.
2. A RN is preparing the physical environment to interview a new client for admission to the mental health unit. Which environmental setting facilitates the best outcome of the interview?
- A. Dim the lights in the room to help the patient feel calm.
- B. Sit within two feet of the client to enhance the level of safety and security.
- C. Reduce the noise level in the room by turning off the television and radio.
- D. Position a table between the client and the RN for extra personal space.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reducing the noise level in the room by turning off the television and radio is the best choice among the options provided. This setting helps create a calm and focused environment, which facilitates better communication and assessment during the interview. Dimming the lights might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially hinder communication. Sitting too close or placing a table between the client and the RN may affect the client's comfort level and openness during the interview.
3. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
- B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
- C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.
4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
- C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
- D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.
5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
- C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
- D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.
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