HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
- C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
- D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.
2. A male client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which symptom is a sign of severe alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Seizures
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Seizures are a sign of severe alcohol withdrawal and can be life-threatening, requiring immediate medical attention. Bradycardia, hyperglycemia, and constipation are not typically associated with severe alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in opioid withdrawal, hyperglycemia could be due to other reasons like uncontrolled diabetes, and constipation is not a typical symptom of severe alcohol withdrawal.
3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
- B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
- C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.
4. A 25-year-old female client has been particularly restless, and the nurse finds her trying to leave the psychiatric unit. She tells the nurse, 'Please let me go! I must leave because the secret police are after me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. No one is after you; you're safe here.
- B. You'll feel better after you have rested.
- C. I know you must feel lonely and frightened.
- D. Come with me to your room, and I will sit with you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best response for the nurse is to offer presence and a safe environment without validating the delusion or arguing with the client. By inviting the client to the room and offering to sit with her, the nurse is providing support and reassurance. Choice A is incorrect because directly denying the client's belief may escalate the situation. Choice B is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C acknowledges the client's feelings but does not provide immediate support or safety, unlike Choice D which offers both.
5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
- D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.
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