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Nursing Elites

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HESI Mental Health

1. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining a consistent sodium intake is crucial for clients taking lithium because changes in sodium levels can impact lithium concentrations, potentially leading to toxicity. It is essential to avoid excessive sodium intake, as both low and high levels can affect lithium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high potassium diet is not a concern with lithium therapy. While taking lithium with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, it is not the most important instruction. Finally, abruptly stopping lithium can lead to a recurrence of symptoms or a worsening of the condition, so it is vital to follow the prescribed regimen.

3. An LPN/LVN is reviewing the assessment data of a client admitted to the mental health unit. The nurse notes that the admission nurse documented that the client is experiencing anxiety as a result of a situational crisis. The nurse determines that this type of crisis is caused by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The death of a loved one.' A situational crisis, like the death of a loved one, can lead to anxiety due to a significant change or loss in the person's life. Choices A, C, and D involve traumatic events, but a situational crisis typically refers to life events that disrupt an individual's normal pattern of living, such as the death of a loved one.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

Similar Questions

A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the best nursing intervention?
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, what is the most effective nursing intervention?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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