HESI Mental Health

HESI LPN

1. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

2. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?

A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

4. An LPN/LVN is reviewing the assessment data of a client admitted to the mental health unit. The nurse notes that the admission nurse documented that the client is experiencing anxiety as a result of a situational crisis. The nurse determines that this type of crisis is caused by:

A. Witnessing a murder
B. The death of a loved one
C. A fire that destroyed the client's home
D. A recent rape episode experienced by the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The death of a loved one.' A situational crisis, like the death of a loved one, can lead to anxiety due to a significant change or loss in the person's life. Choices A, C, and D involve traumatic events, but a situational crisis typically refers to life events that disrupt an individual's normal pattern of living, such as the death of a loved one.

5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.