HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. When should the low-risk patient, who is 16 weeks pregnant, be advised to return to the prenatal clinic?
- A. 1 week.
- B. 2 weeks.
- C. 3 weeks.
- D. 4 weeks.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 weeks. Low-risk pregnant patients typically have prenatal visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks of gestation. This frequency allows for adequate monitoring of the pregnancy without being overly burdensome on the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the standard prenatal care schedule for low-risk pregnancies. Visits that are too frequent may cause unnecessary anxiety for the patient, while visits that are too infrequent may miss important opportunities for monitoring and intervention.
2. Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.
- A. rod-shaped
- B. circular
- C. cone-shaped
- D. octagonal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.
3. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?
- A. To induce abortion
- B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
- C. To determine the baby's gender
- D. To monitor fetal growth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.
4. What determines a child’s sex?
- A. Presence of teratogens at the time of conception.
- B. Sex chromosome received from the mother.
- C. Presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation.
- D. Sex chromosome received from the father.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the sex chromosome received from the father. The father contributes either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the child's sex. This occurs at the moment of fertilization when the sperm carrying either an X (resulting in a female) or Y (resulting in a male) chromosome fertilizes the egg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the presence of teratogens at the time of conception or ovulation does not determine the child's sex. While the sex chromosome received from the mother is important, it is the father's contribution that ultimately determines the child's sex.
5. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Cystic fibrosis
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.
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