HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. Do dizygotic (DZ) twins run in families?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Rarely
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yes, dizygotic (DZ) twins can run in families. This is due to genetic factors that influence hyperovulation, where a woman releases multiple eggs during her menstrual cycle. This genetic predisposition can be passed down through generations, increasing the likelihood of having dizygotic twins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the statement that dizygotic twins run in families is true, as supported by scientific evidence. It is important to note that while the genetic predisposition for dizygotic twins can run in families, it does not guarantee that every generation will have twins, as other factors also play a role in twin pregnancies.
2. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?
- A. Short interval between pregnancies
- B. Folic acid deficiency
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Tobacco use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.
3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Vulvar Lesions
- D. Malodorous Discharge
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.
4. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?
- A. Retained placental fragments.
- B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
- C. Uterine atony.
- D. Puerperal infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.
5. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
- C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
- D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99