HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.
2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Hair loss
- C. Weight gain
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?
- A. Menopausal symptoms
- B. Prostatic cancer
- C. Thromboembolic diseases
- D. Abnormal uterine bleeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.
5. A client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Increased appetite.' Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to commonly cause increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Monitoring for increased appetite is crucial as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being. Choice A, 'Insomnia,' is less likely as amitriptyline is more associated with sedative effects. Choice B, 'Weight loss,' is incorrect as weight gain is a more common side effect. Choice C, 'Dry mouth,' is a potential side effect of amitriptyline, but it is not directly related to increased appetite, which is the primary concern in this case.
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