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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of buspirone is drowsiness. It is important for clients to be informed about this side effect, as it can affect their ability to perform tasks that require full alertness, such as driving. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth is a common side effect of some other medications used for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines. Nausea and headache are not typically associated with buspirone use.
2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Paroxetine, used for generalized anxiety disorder, can cause drowsiness. Clients should be advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are potential side effects of other medications but are not commonly associated with paroxetine. Drowsiness is a common side effect for paroxetine and can impact a client's ability to perform tasks that require alertness.
3. When should a glucagon emergency kit be used for a client with Type 1 diabetes?
- A. During episodes of hypoglycemia
- B. At the onset of signs of diabetic ketoacidosis
- C. Before meals to prevent hyperglycemia
- D. When signs of severe hypoglycemia occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucagon emergency kit is used when signs of severe hypoglycemia occur in a client with Type 1 diabetes. Glucagon helps raise blood glucose levels in cases of severe hypoglycemia when the individual is unable to take oral glucose. It is crucial to administer glucagon promptly to prevent serious complications associated with low blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a glucagon emergency kit is specifically indicated for severe hypoglycemia, not for general episodes of hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, or prevention of hyperglycemia.
4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Kidney stones
- C. Weight gain
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
- A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
- C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
- D. It increases the production of aldosterone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.
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