HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. What class of laxative would the nurse recommend to a patient asking about the best way to prevent constipation?
- A. Stimulant laxatives
- B. Bulk-forming laxatives
- C. Emollient laxatives
- D. Hyperosmotic laxatives
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bulk-forming laxatives. These laxatives are recommended to prevent constipation because they work by absorbing liquid in the intestines, forming a bulky, soft stool that is easier to pass. They are safe and considered the most natural option. Stimulant laxatives (choice A) work by promoting bowel movements through intestinal contractions and are more suitable for treating occasional constipation rather than preventing it. Emollient laxatives (choice C) soften the stool by increasing the incorporation of water into the feces and are more suitable for patients who need to avoid straining during defecation. Hyperosmotic laxatives (choice D) work by drawing water into the intestine through osmosis and are typically used for more severe cases of constipation, not for prevention.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.
3. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?
- A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
- B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
- C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
- D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.
4. A client is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake.
- C. Complete the full course of the medication.
- D. Avoid dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The practical nurse should instruct the client to complete the full course of the antibiotic to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Completing the full course of antibiotics helps to eradicate the infection completely and reduces the risk of bacteria developing resistance to the medication. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to ensuring the effectiveness of the antibiotic. While taking medication with food or increasing fluid intake can be beneficial in general, the crucial instruction in this case is to complete the full course of the antibiotic.
5. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
- A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
- B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
- C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
- D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
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