HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
- A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
- C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
- D. It increases the production of aldosterone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.
3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Paroxetine, used for generalized anxiety disorder, can cause drowsiness. Clients should be advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are potential side effects of other medications but are not commonly associated with paroxetine. Drowsiness is a common side effect for paroxetine and can impact a client's ability to perform tasks that require alertness.
4. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
- A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
- B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
- C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
- D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.
5. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?
- A. Withdraw ten units of regular insulin from a vial
- B. Withhold the dose until regular insulin is available
- C. Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withhold
- D. Pull up 30 units from a vial but only administer 10 units
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.
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