HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?
- A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
- B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
- C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
- D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.
2. When should a glucagon emergency kit be used for a client with Type 1 diabetes?
- A. During episodes of hypoglycemia
- B. At the onset of signs of diabetic ketoacidosis
- C. Before meals to prevent hyperglycemia
- D. When signs of severe hypoglycemia occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucagon emergency kit is used when signs of severe hypoglycemia occur in a client with Type 1 diabetes. Glucagon helps raise blood glucose levels in cases of severe hypoglycemia when the individual is unable to take oral glucose. It is crucial to administer glucagon promptly to prevent serious complications associated with low blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a glucagon emergency kit is specifically indicated for severe hypoglycemia, not for general episodes of hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, or prevention of hyperglycemia.
3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed topiramate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Cognitive impairment
- B. Weight gain
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Topiramate is associated with cognitive impairment as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's cognitive function while on this medication to assess for any signs of cognitive decline or impairment. Choice B, weight gain, is incorrect as topiramate is actually associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C, liver toxicity, is also incorrect as topiramate is not known to cause liver toxicity. Choice D, weight loss, is not the correct answer as topiramate is not associated with weight gain.
4. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.
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