HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is being taught about diet management by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?
- A. I should not avoid all carbohydrates
- B. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medication
- C. I need to eat regular meals and snacks to maintain my blood sugar levels
- D. I will decrease my intake of sugary foods to prevent low blood sugar
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because eating regular meals and snacks is crucial for maintaining stable blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This approach helps prevent spikes and drops in blood sugar, promoting better management of the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended as they are a major energy source and can be part of a balanced diet; eating whatever one wants while relying solely on medication can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and complications; decreasing sugary foods intake can actually contribute to high blood sugar levels rather than preventing low blood sugar.
2. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent wound drainage. Previously, the wound was inflamed and tender but without drainage. Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Determine if the drainage has an unpleasant odor.
- B. Monitor the client's white blood cell count (WBC).
- C. Request a culture and sensitivity of the wound.
- D. Cleanse the wound with a sterile saline solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Requesting a culture and sensitivity of the wound is the most crucial action in this scenario. This will help identify the specific organism causing the infection and determine its sensitivity to antibiotics, guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Option A is less critical as odor alone may not provide enough information about the type of infection. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count (WBC) in option B is important but not as immediate as obtaining a wound culture. Cleansing the wound with a sterile saline solution in option D is necessary but should follow after obtaining the culture results to ensure proper treatment.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone abdominal surgery. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Absence of bowel sounds
- B. Mild abdominal distention
- C. Drainage of serosanguineous fluid from the incision
- D. Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain may indicate complications such as peritonitis, bowel perforation, or internal bleeding. These conditions are serious and require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or deterioration. Absence of bowel sounds, mild abdominal distention, and drainage of serosanguineous fluid are common findings after abdominal surgery and may not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Severe abdominal pain post-surgery should always be reported promptly as it could signify a life-threatening situation that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
4. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has a yellowish tint to the skin. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Reassure the parents that this is normal
- B. Monitor the infant's bilirubin levels
- C. Increase the frequency of feedings
- D. Administer phototherapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a newborn presents with a yellowish tint to the skin, it can indicate jaundice, which is caused by elevated bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's bilirubin levels is crucial to assess the severity of jaundice and determine the need for further intervention. Reassuring the parents without proper assessment could lead to delayed treatment if jaundice is present. Increasing the frequency of feedings may not address the underlying cause of jaundice. Administering phototherapy is a treatment option that should be based on bilirubin level assessment and healthcare provider's recommendation.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.
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