Nursing Elites

1. What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?

• A. Accepts and interprets signals of sexual stimuli
• B. Secretes mucus to facilitate sperm transport
• C. Serves as the site for union of ovum and sperm
• D. Receives the penis during intercourse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.

2. What should the nurse prioritize when providing discharge instructions to a client with a new colostomy?

• A. Skin care around the stoma site
• B. The schedule for colostomy bag replacement
• C. Techniques for odor control
• D. Dietary modifications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Skin care around the stoma site. Proper skin care around the stoma site is crucial for preventing skin irritation and infection, which are common issues for patients with new colostomies. While the schedule for colostomy bag replacement (Option B) is important, it is not the priority during initial discharge instructions. Techniques for odor control (Option C) are relevant but secondary to skin care for a new colostomy. Dietary modifications (Option D) may be discussed later but are not the priority at this stage.

3. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
• B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
• C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
• D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

5. A healthcare provider is conducting a health education session about the prevention of type 2 diabetes. What lifestyle modification should be emphasized?

• A. Increasing physical activity
• B. Reducing dietary sugar intake
• C. Regular health screenings
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To effectively prevent type 2 diabetes, individuals should focus on a combination of lifestyle modifications. Increasing physical activity helps maintain a healthy weight and improves insulin sensitivity. Reducing dietary sugar intake can lower the risk of developing diabetes by managing blood sugar levels. Regular health screenings are crucial for early detection and timely intervention. Emphasizing all these modifications together provides a comprehensive approach to diabetes prevention. Choices A, B, and C are all important components of a healthy lifestyle that can contribute to reducing the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Similar Questions