HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?
- A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
- B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
- D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
2. A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for an adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Choose the most distal site on the selected extremity
- B. Apply a cool compress to the selected extremity before insertion of the IV catheter
- C. Stroke the selected extremity before insertion of the IV catheter
- D. Place the tourniquet above the proposed insertion site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When preparing to insert an IV catheter, stroking the extremity before insertion helps to visualize veins, making it easier to locate a suitable vein for catheter insertion. Choosing the most distal site on the extremity is correct because veins more distal are preferred for IV catheter insertion. Applying a cool compress to the extremity before insertion is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Placing the tourniquet below the proposed insertion site is incorrect; the tourniquet should be placed above the proposed insertion site to help engorge the veins for easier visualization and access.
3. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?
- A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
- B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
- C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
- D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.
4. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.
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