HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
- B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
- C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
- D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.
2. When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?
- A. Repeat each joint motion five times during each session.
- B. Perform the exercises quickly to save time.
- C. Focus only on the most affected joints.
- D. Assess the client's range of motion before starting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
- B. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- C. Verify tube placement by aspirating stomach contents.
- D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.
4. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:
- A. Check to see if the tubing is kinked.
- B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
- C. Check the catheter insertion site.
- D. Contact the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.
5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
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