HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?
- A. At the time of admission
- B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
- C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
- D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.
2. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.
3. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?
- A. Assess oral cavity.
- B. Assess room for drafts.
- C. Assess ankles for edema.
- D. Assess for reduced sensations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.
4. A nurse is preparing an education program for staff about advocacy. What information should the nurse include?
- A. Advocacy ensures clients' safety, health, and rights.
- B. Advocacy involves only supporting client complaints.
- C. Advocacy means making all decisions for the client.
- D. Advocacy is not part of nursing responsibilities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Advocacy in nursing involves ensuring clients' safety, health, and rights. Nurses advocate for their clients by promoting autonomy, informed decision-making, and protecting their rights. Choice B is incorrect because advocacy goes beyond just supporting client complaints; it encompasses a broader scope of ensuring holistic care and well-being. Choice C is incorrect as advocacy does not mean making all decisions for the client but rather empowering them to make informed choices. Choice D is incorrect as advocacy is a crucial component of nursing responsibilities, as it involves standing up for clients' best interests and ensuring their rights are respected.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
- A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
- B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
- C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
- D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.
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