HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.
2. When planning interventions for a group of clients who are obese, what can the nurse do to improve their commitment to a long-term goal of weight loss?
- A. Developing a strict diet plan
- B. Attempting to develop the clients’ self-motivation
- C. Providing frequent rewards
- D. Encouraging group exercise
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To improve clients' commitment to a long-term goal of weight loss, attempting to develop their self-motivation is crucial. Self-motivation is essential for sustaining behavior changes over time. Providing a strict diet plan (choice A) may not address the root motivation needed for long-term success. While rewards (choice C) can be motivating, relying solely on external rewards may not foster the intrinsic motivation required for sustained weight loss. Encouraging group exercise (choice D) is beneficial, but without addressing individual motivation, it may not lead to long-term commitment to weight loss goals.
3. A client expresses pain during dressing changes postoperatively. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the client to relax and take deep breaths during the dressing change.
- B. Educate the client about the importance of pain management postoperatively.
- C. Assist the client to a comfortable position for the dressing change.
- D. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client's dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to address the client's immediate physiological need for comfort and pain relief during the dressing change. Administering pain medication 45 minutes before the procedure can help alleviate the pain experienced by the client. Encouraging relaxation techniques (choice A) is beneficial but may not provide sufficient pain relief during the dressing change. Educating about the importance of pain management (choice B) is relevant but does not address the immediate need for pain relief. Assisting the client to a comfortable position (choice C) is helpful but does not directly address the client's pain concern during the dressing change. Administering pain medication is the most direct and effective intervention to ensure optimal client comfort and compliance with necessary procedures.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
- A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
- B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
- C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
- D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?
- A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
- D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.
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