HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
- C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- D. Loose stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
2. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. PIE
- D. DAR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
3. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
- B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
- C. Pale nail beds in both hands
- D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.
4. In a client with liver cirrhosis, which symptom would be most concerning during assessment?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Ascites
- C. Hepatomegaly
- D. Altered mental status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Altered mental status would be the most concerning symptom in a client with liver cirrhosis. It may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While jaundice, ascites, and hepatomegaly are common in liver cirrhosis, they do not directly correlate with the urgency and severity of hepatic encephalopathy as altered mental status does. Therefore, altered mental status takes priority for immediate attention and intervention.
5. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Heart murmur
- C. Macular rash
- D. Hemorrhage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.
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