adult health 2 final exam Adult Health 2 Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.

2. The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer as it accurately explains that the letters T, N, and M in cancer staging represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis, respectively. Understanding this staging system helps the client comprehend the extent and severity of the disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A has the correct information but is not the most precise response. Choice C is vague and does not directly address the client's need for clarification. Choice D offers further clarification without directly addressing the initial explanation provided by the healthcare provider.

3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

4. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed an SSRI. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an SSRI for depression is to report any thoughts of self-harm immediately. SSRIs can increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment, so it is crucial to monitor for this and take appropriate actions. While it is important to take the medication as prescribed (Choice A), the immediate need for reporting self-harm ideation takes precedence. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is a general precaution with certain medications but not as critical in this scenario. Understanding that improvement may take weeks (Choice D) is important for managing treatment expectations, but ensuring the client's safety in the context of suicidal ideation is the top priority.

5. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.

Similar Questions

A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A client with a diagnosis of pneumonia is experiencing difficulty expectorating thick secretions. What intervention should the nurse implement to assist the client?
The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?
The nurse notes that a postoperative client's wound site is red and slightly swollen. What is the most appropriate action?
A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?
A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
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