in a community health setting which individual is at highest risk for contracting an hiv infection
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.

3. A client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client with tuberculosis (TB) is to take all prescribed medications as directed. This is crucial to prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. While avoiding close contact with others until treatment is complete (Choice A) is important to prevent the spread of TB, ensuring the client completes the prescribed medication regimen is the priority. Scheduling a follow-up appointment (Choice C) is important for monitoring but not as critical as medication adherence. Wearing a mask in public places (Choice D) can help reduce the spread of TB but is not as essential as taking medications as prescribed.

4. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Lithium can affect sodium levels in the body, potentially leading to hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low sodium levels. This imbalance requires close monitoring as it can lead to symptoms such as confusion, weakness, and even seizures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithium is not primarily associated with causing hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, or hypernatremia. While these imbalances can occur in certain conditions or with other medications, the main electrolyte imbalance to monitor when a client is prescribed lithium is hyponatremia.

5. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

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