Nursing Elites

1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

2. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?

• A. If the client has any metal implants
• B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
• C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
• D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.

3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

4. A client with hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which symptom should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Nervousness and tremors
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nervousness and tremors. These symptoms may indicate hyperthyroidism resulting from excessive dosing of levothyroxine. Weight gain (Choice A) is a common symptom of hypothyroidism and may indicate undertreatment or inadequate dosing. Bradycardia (Choice B) is a symptom of hypothyroidism and may improve with levothyroxine therapy; it does not typically indicate an urgent need for healthcare provider notification. Fatigue (Choice D) is a symptom of hypothyroidism and can persist even with levothyroxine treatment, so it is not a symptom that would require immediate notification of the healthcare provider.

5. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Follow a low-sodium diet.
• C. Follow a high-protein diet.
• D. Increase sodium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

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