Nursing Elites

1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.

3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications. What should be emphasized?

• A. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods
• B. Eating small, frequent meals
• C. Avoiding meals before bedtime
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing GERD, dietary modifications play a significant role. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods helps reduce irritation, while eating small, frequent meals prevents overeating, which can trigger reflux. Avoiding meals before bedtime allows for better digestion and reduces the likelihood of acid reflux during the night. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are crucial in managing GERD symptoms, making choice D the correct answer.

4. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?

• A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
• B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
• C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
• D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.

5. A client is prescribed warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods
• C. Avoid all foods containing vitamin K
• D. Consume a high-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is important for patients taking warfarin as it helps keep the effects of the medication stable. Choice A is incorrect because while green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, they should not be avoided completely but rather consumed consistently. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all foods containing vitamin K can lead to fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as a high-protein diet is not specifically recommended for patients taking warfarin.

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