HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
- B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
- C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
- D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Provide humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.
3. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
- A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
- B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
- C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
- D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.
4. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption
- B. Expect stools to be dark in color
- C. Take the medication before bedtime
- D. Avoid foods high in vitamin C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.
5. What is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Ensure the client is pain-free
- C. Assess for bleeding and arrhythmias
- D. Maintain a patent airway
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft. This is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation, especially in the early recovery phase. Monitoring for signs of infection, ensuring the client is pain-free, and assessing for bleeding and arrhythmias are important aspects of postoperative care but maintaining a clear airway takes precedence in this scenario to prevent hypoxia and respiratory compromise. In the immediate postoperative period, maintaining a patent airway is essential to prevent complications such as airway obstruction, hypoxia, and respiratory distress, which are critical in ensuring the client's safety and recovery.
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