Nursing Elites

1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

2. A client with a history of chronic back pain is prescribed oxycodone for pain management. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to reduce stomach upset
• B. Avoid operating heavy machinery while taking this medication
• C. Increase physical activity to enhance pain relief
• D. Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately.' Respiratory depression is a severe side effect of opioids like oxycodone and can be life-threatening. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs such as slow or shallow breathing, difficulty breathing, or confusion. Choice A is incorrect as taking oxycodone with or without food does not significantly affect its efficacy. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding driving is important due to the potential impairment caused by oxycodone, but reporting respiratory depression is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as increasing physical activity may not always be suitable for individuals with chronic back pain and is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression.

3. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

4. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

• A. Administer morphine for pain relief
• B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises
• C. Position the client flat in bed
• D. Restrict fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.

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