Nursing Elites

1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

2. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

3. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?

• A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
• B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
• C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
• D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer bronchodilator therapy as prescribed.
• B. Inhale the medication slowly while pressing down on the inhaler.
• C. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing by maximizing chest expansion and allowing for better airflow. While administering bronchodilator therapy is important, positioning the client for improved breathing takes priority. Inhaling the medication slowly and pressing down on the inhaler is a correct technique for inhaler use but not the priority intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be needed, but adjusting the client's position to a high-Fowler's position is the priority to address the shortness of breath in COPD.

5. During the shift change report at an acute care hospital, the charge nurse assigns the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) to care for a client. Which task is within the LPN's scope?

• A. Administering IV medication
• B. Conducting initial client assessments
• C. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care such as wound care. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer falls within the LPN's scope of practice. Administering IV medication (choice A) requires a higher level of skill and is usually the responsibility of registered nurses. Conducting initial client assessments (choice B) demands more advanced training and is typically performed by registered nurses. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration (choice D) involves patient education and is usually within the scope of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals with specific training in diabetic care.

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