HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
- B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
- C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
- D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.
2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which instruction is most important to prevent complications?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
- B. Maintain a low-fat diet
- C. Exercise regularly
- D. Take medication as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications. This allows the client and healthcare team to make timely adjustments to the treatment plan. While maintaining a low-fat diet, exercising regularly, and taking medication as prescribed are all important aspects of diabetes management, monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence as it provides real-time information about the client's condition and helps prevent acute complications.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which area of the body is the preferred site for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Inner forearm
- C. Abdomen
- D. Thigh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The inner forearm is the preferred site for administering a tuberculin skin test (TST) due to its easy accessibility, minimal hair interference, and good visibility of the injection site, allowing for accurate interpretation of the test results. The deltoid muscle, abdomen, and thigh are not preferred sites for a TST as they may not provide the optimal conditions required for the test. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for intramuscular injections, the abdomen may have varying subcutaneous fat thickness affecting the test, and the thigh may not provide the necessary visibility for accurate reading.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone a total hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent postoperative complications?
- A. Encourage early ambulation
- B. Apply ice to the surgical site
- C. Monitor the surgical site for signs of infection
- D. Administer pain medication as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging early ambulation is crucial following a total hip replacement surgery as it helps prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting circulation. Early ambulation also aids in preventing pneumonia, muscle atrophy, and pressure ulcers. Applying ice to the surgical site may help with pain and swelling, but it is not as critical in preventing complications as early ambulation. While monitoring the surgical site for signs of infection is important, it is not as crucial in preventing postoperative complications compared to early ambulation. Administering pain medication as prescribed is essential for comfort and pain management but does not directly prevent postoperative complications like early ambulation does.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?
- A. Administration of IV diuretics
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Bed rest
- D. Dietary consultation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.
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