Nursing Elites

1. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

2. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?

• A. Appetite
• B. Mood
• C. Withdrawal
• D. Energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.

3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?

• A. Administration of IV diuretics
• B. Oxygen therapy
• C. Bed rest
• D. Dietary consultation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.

4. What is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Ensure the client is pain-free
• C. Assess for bleeding and arrhythmias
• D. Maintain a patent airway

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft. This is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation, especially in the early recovery phase. Monitoring for signs of infection, ensuring the client is pain-free, and assessing for bleeding and arrhythmias are important aspects of postoperative care but maintaining a clear airway takes precedence in this scenario to prevent hypoxia and respiratory compromise. In the immediate postoperative period, maintaining a patent airway is essential to prevent complications such as airway obstruction, hypoxia, and respiratory distress, which are critical in ensuring the client's safety and recovery.

5. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively following a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Hoarseness of the voice.
• B. Slight swelling at the incision site.
• C. Tingling around the mouth.
• D. Mild fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling around the mouth should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as it may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hoarseness of the voice is common postoperatively due to surgical manipulation, slight swelling at the incision site is a normal response, and a mild fever can be expected after surgery. However, tingling around the mouth suggests a potential calcium imbalance, which requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications.

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