HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. Which nonfood item is the most common cause of respiratory arrest in young children?
- A. Broken rattles
- B. Buttons
- C. Pacifiers
- D. Latex balloons
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Latex balloons. Latex balloons can pose a significant choking hazard to young children if inhaled, potentially leading to respiratory arrest. Broken rattles, buttons, and pacifiers are not typically known to cause respiratory arrest in young children. While these items can present choking hazards as well, the most common cause of respiratory arrest among young children is due to inhaling latex balloons.
2. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Avoid walking as much as possible
- B. Report any signs of bleeding to the healthcare provider
- C. Take aspirin for additional pain relief
- D. Wear compression stockings at night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reporting signs of bleeding is essential while on anticoagulant therapy to prevent complications.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
4. A healthcare provider is conducting a health education session about the prevention of type 2 diabetes. What lifestyle modification should be emphasized?
- A. Increasing physical activity
- B. Reducing dietary sugar intake
- C. Regular health screenings
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To effectively prevent type 2 diabetes, individuals should focus on a combination of lifestyle modifications. Increasing physical activity helps maintain a healthy weight and improves insulin sensitivity. Reducing dietary sugar intake can lower the risk of developing diabetes by managing blood sugar levels. Regular health screenings are crucial for early detection and timely intervention. Emphasizing all these modifications together provides a comprehensive approach to diabetes prevention. Choices A, B, and C are all important components of a healthy lifestyle that can contribute to reducing the risk of type 2 diabetes.
5. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height. The client is 26 weeks pregnant. What should the fundal height be?
- A. Approximately 26 cm
- B. Between 24 to 28 cm
- C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
- D. Below the xiphoid process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Between 24 to 28 cm. Fundal height corresponds to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks of pregnancy, the fundal height should range between 24 to 28 cm. This measurement is a quick way to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height may vary and not always match the exact weeks of pregnancy. Choice C, measuring above the umbilicus by two finger widths, is not a standard method for fundal height measurement. Choice D, below the xiphoid process, is too high and not relevant for assessing fundal height during pregnancy.
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