HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?
- A. Administration of IV diuretics
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Bed rest
- D. Dietary consultation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.
2. A client who fell 20 feet from the roof of his home has multiple injuries, including a right pneumothorax. Chest tubes were inserted in the emergency department prior to his transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse observes that the suction control chamber is bubbling at the -10 cm H20 mark, with fluctuation in the water seal, and over the past hour, 75 mL of bright red blood is measured in the collection chamber. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase wall suction to eliminate fluctuation in the water seal.
- B. Give blood from the collection chamber as autotransfusion.
- C. Add sterile water to the suction control chamber.
- D. Manipulate blood in tubing to drain into chamber.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement is to add sterile water to the suction control chamber. This action helps maintain the proper functioning of the chest tube system by regulating the negative pressure. Increasing wall suction is not recommended as it could lead to excessive negative pressure. Giving blood from the collection chamber as autotransfusion is inappropriate and poses a risk of complications such as air embolism. Manipulating blood in the tubing is also unsafe as it could introduce air into the system, increasing the risk of complications for the client.
3. During a bed bath, the nurse observes that a client's IV site is red and swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Discontinue the IV under physician's guidance
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Notify the physician
- D. Document the appearance of the site and continue the bath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when a nurse observes a red and swollen IV site during a bed bath is to notify the physician. This is crucial because prompt reporting allows for immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Discontinuing the IV (Choice A) should only be done under the physician's guidance to avoid any adverse effects and ensure proper care. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation if the cause is an infection or infiltration. Documenting the site's appearance and continuing the bath (Choice D) without immediate action might delay necessary treatment, leading to potential complications.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes erythromycin (Ilosone) 300 mg PO QID. The medication label reads, 'Ilosone 100mg/5mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer at each dose?
- A. 15 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 20 mL
- D. 5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume of medication needed for a 300 mg dose of Ilosone (100mg/5mL), we set up a proportion: 100 mg is to 5 mL as 300 mg is to x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get x = (300*5)/100 = 15 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 15 mL at each dose. Choice B (10 mL) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation based on the medication concentration. Choices C (20 mL) and D (5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume required for the prescribed dose.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?
- A. Phenytoin level
- B. Sodium level
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.
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