HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?
- A. Administration of IV diuretics
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Bed rest
- D. Dietary consultation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?
- A. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
- B. Positioning the client in the prone position
- C. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position
- D. Elevating the client's legs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.
3. The nurse is monitoring a client's intravenous infusion and observes that the venipuncture site is cool to the touch, swollen, and the infusion rate is slower than the prescribed rate. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
- A. The solution's rate is too rapid
- B. The client has phlebitis
- C. The infusion site is infected
- D. The infusion is infiltrated
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An infiltrated IV occurs when fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing coolness, swelling, and a slow infusion rate. Choice A is incorrect because a rapid solution rate does not typically cause these specific symptoms. Choice B, phlebitis, presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness along the vein, not coolness. Choice C, infection, usually manifests with redness, warmth, and possibly purulent drainage, not coolness and swelling.
4. What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Avoid foods high in tyramine
- C. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately
- D. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.
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