a client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue what initial intervention should the nurse prepare t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.

2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being educated about dietary modifications. Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize the most?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to restrict protein intake. By restricting protein intake, the workload on the kidneys is reduced, which helps slow the progression of CKD. While high-fiber foods are generally beneficial, they may need to be limited in some individuals with CKD due to potassium concerns, making choice A less critical. Avoiding dairy products may be necessary in some cases to control phosphorus levels, but it is not as vital as restricting protein intake. Increasing fluid intake is essential for kidney health, but it is not the most critical dietary modification for clients with CKD.

3. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.

4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

5. What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.

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