a client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue what initial intervention should the nurse prepare t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.

3. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.

5. While caring for a client who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse responds to a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A restless client biting the endotracheal tube can increase airway resistance, triggering the high-pressure alarm and indicating a need for immediate intervention. This behavior can lead to complications such as dislodgement of the tube or airway obstruction. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O, decreased lung compliance, and bilateral crackles with increased secretions are important assessments but do not directly address the urgent need to intervene when a high-pressure alarm is triggered.

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