Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?

• A. Administration of IV diuretics
• B. Oxygen therapy
• C. Bed rest
• D. Dietary consultation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.

2. The client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Increase the intake of spicy foods
• B. Avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
• C. Drink coffee in moderation
• D. Eat large meals at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with newly diagnosed PUD about lifestyle modifications is to avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease by causing further irritation of the gastric mucosa. Increasing the intake of spicy foods (choice A) can aggravate the condition by irritating the stomach lining. Drinking coffee (choice C) can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the symptoms of PUD. Eating large meals at bedtime (choice D) can also exacerbate PUD by increasing gastric acid production when the body is at rest, potentially leading to discomfort and symptoms.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

4. A client requires application of an eye shield to the right eye. What should the nurse do in order to apply tape to anchor the shield most effectively?

• A. Place tape from the cheek to the forehead
• B. Secure tape from the nose to the ear
• C. Attach tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead
• D. Use circular bandaging around the head

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to apply tape to anchor an eye shield effectively is to attach the tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead. This method provides stability for the shield without putting pressure on the eye itself, thus helping to protect the eye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taping from the cheek to the forehead, securing tape from the nose to the ear, or using circular bandaging around the head may not provide the necessary stability and protection required for the eye shield.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Sodium level
• B. Potassium level
• C. Calcium level
• D. Chloride level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

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