hesi focus on maternity exam HESI Focus on Maternity Exam - Nursing Elites
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HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.

2. Which of the following conditions is considered a multifactorial problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diabetes mellitus' because it is a multifactorial disease, influenced by both genetic predisposition and environmental factors. Cystic fibrosis (choice A) is primarily a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene. Down syndrome (choice B) is due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. XYY syndrome (choice D) is a genetic condition where males have an extra Y chromosome. These conditions are not considered multifactorial as their origins are primarily genetic.

3. A client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2 months of pregnancy is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alternating arms for blood pressure checks ensures more accurate readings and helps monitor preeclampsia. Option A, counting baby's kicks every other day, is not specific to managing preeclampsia. Option C, consuming 50 grams of protein daily, is important for a healthy diet during pregnancy but does not directly relate to preeclampsia management.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. Females with Turner syndrome:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in females characterized by short stature and underdeveloped ovaries, resulting in low estrogen production. This leads to symptoms such as delayed puberty and infertility. Choice A is incorrect because the chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome does not affect the thymine-cytosine ratio. Choice B is incorrect as females with Turner syndrome are typically shorter than average. Choice D is incorrect as Turner syndrome does not increase the likelihood of giving birth to twins.

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