a nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client the nurse should identify that which of the following factors places the cli
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

2. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

3. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. A new mother who is a lacto-ovo vegetarian plans to breastfeed her infant. Which information should the nurse provide prior to discharge?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Continue prenatal vitamins with B12 while breastfeeding.' Vitamin B12 is crucial for lacto-ovo vegetarian mothers to prevent deficiencies in both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as Lanolin-based nipple cream is safe for use during breastfeeding. Choice C is not necessary unless there are specific indications for iron supplementation. Choice D, weighing the baby weekly, is important for monitoring growth but not specifically related to the mother's diet.

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