HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?
- A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.
2. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Breast Tenderness
- D. Chills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.
3. Matt is a 36-year-old male. In the past year, he has noticed that his limbs sometimes move on their own, and he has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Matt’s father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Matt is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Turner syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Matt is exhibiting symptoms typical of Huntington’s disease (HD), a hereditary condition characterized by involuntary movements, cognitive impairment, and behavioral changes. The fact that Matt's father and grandfather had similar issues supports the genetic nature of the disease. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that affects amino acid metabolism, not presenting with the symptoms described. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not causing the neurological symptoms described. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition affecting females and is not associated with the symptoms described in the case of Matt.
4. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.
5. Chromosomes contain thousands of segments called:
- A. nuclei.
- B. nodes.
- C. capillaries.
- D. genes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chromosomes are structures composed of DNA and genes. Genes are the functional segments within chromosomes that encode specific traits and characteristics. The other choices ('nuclei,' 'nodes,' 'capillaries') do not accurately describe the segments found within chromosomes and are unrelated to their structure or function.
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