HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
- A. reductions
- B. expulsions
- C. conceptions
- D. mutations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After mitosis, the genetic code is typically preserved and remains identical in the new cells. However, mutations can occur due to radiation or environmental influences, leading to changes in the DNA sequence and potentially altering the genetic code. Therefore, the correct answer is 'mutations.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reductions, expulsions, and conceptions do not accurately describe the changes in the genetic code that can result from external factors. Mutations are the only option that reflects the alteration in the genetic code caused by external influences, making it the correct choice in this context.
2. In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?
- A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
- B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
- C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
- D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.
3. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate 14/min
- C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
- D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.
4. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- C. Hemophilia
- D. Huntington’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.
5. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?
- A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
- B. Lubricate the eyes.
- C. Prevent the development of infection.
- D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.
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