HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?
- A. Structure audit
- B. Benchmarking
- C. Risk benefit analysis
- D. Root cause analysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.
2. Which of the following new opportunities might a new nurse see in the future?
- A. Transitional care
- B. Traditional care
- C. Hospital-based care
- D. Care based on cost
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the future, new nurses may see opportunities in transitional care. Transitional care involves the coordination and continuity of healthcare during a movement from one healthcare setting to another. This type of care is increasingly important in today's healthcare landscape due to the focus on improving patient outcomes and reducing hospital readmissions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent emerging opportunities for new nurses in the future. Traditional care and hospital-based care are existing models of care delivery, while care based solely on cost does not align with the holistic approach to patient care that is becoming more prevalent in healthcare.
3. Wilms' tumor is a form of:
- A. Renal cancer.
- B. Liver cancer.
- C. Basal cell carcinoma.
- D. Brain cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wilms' tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. The correct answer is A: Renal cancer. This tumor originates in the kidneys and is most commonly found in children, with the peak incidence around 3-4 years of age. Choice B, Liver cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor specifically involves the kidneys, not the liver. Choice C, Basal cell carcinoma, is a form of skin cancer, not related to Wilms' tumor. Choice D, Brain cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor is not associated with the brain but rather with the kidneys.
4. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
- A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
- B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
- C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
- D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
5. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?
- A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
- B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
- C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
- D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.
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