Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
• B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
• C. Speak with the AP about the incident
• D. Inform the unit manager of the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.

2. Which of the following is true regarding the Affordable Care Act?

• A. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of interest to nursing without controversy.
• B. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads for nurses.
• C. The Affordable Care Act provided a new patient-centered model for health care.
• D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many of the issues of interest to nursing, but came with much controversy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many issues relevant to nursing, such as mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads, but it faced significant controversy. Choice A is incorrect as the act did not address nursing issues without controversy. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately lists the issues the act addressed. Choice C is incorrect as it does not fully capture the controversy surrounding the Affordable Care Act.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate?

• A. Chest Circumference: 10 to 13 inches
• B. Length: 16 to 22 inches
• C. Weight: 1,500 to 4,000 g
• D. Head Circumference: 12.6 to 14.5 inches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A normal head circumference for a neonate typically falls within the range of 12.6 to 14.5 inches. Choice A is incorrect because the chest circumference for a neonate is usually smaller. Choice B is incorrect as the length of a neonate is typically shorter. Choice C is incorrect as the weight of a neonate is usually measured in grams and falls within a different range.

5. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:

• A. 1 in 85 births.
• B. 1 in 5400 births.
• C. 1 in 2700 births.
• D. 1 in 540 births

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 in 85 births. The rate of twin pregnancies is approximately 1 in 85 births. This means that twins are more common compared to triplets, which occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct frequency of twin pregnancies as stated in the question.

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