HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. In the immediate postoperative period, a client is prescribed morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which finding should the PN consider the highest priority in this client?
- A. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine
- B. Assessing the rate and depth of the client's respirations
- C. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery
- D. Observing the client's signs of disorientation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority for the PN is to assess the rate and depth of the client's respirations when a client is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening side effect of intravenous morphine administration. If the client's respiratory rate falls below 10 breaths/min, the PCA pump should be stopped, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately to prevent further complications. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing respiratory status. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery is not directly related to the immediate management of the client receiving morphine via PCA. Observing signs of disorientation is also important but not as critical as assessing respirations for potential respiratory depression.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.
3. A healthcare professional prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min, respirations are 16 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
- A. Administer the dose and monitor the client's blood pressure regularly
- B. Apply a telemetry monitor before administering the dose
- C. Assess for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose
- D. Withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's low heart rate of 48 beats/min indicates bradycardia, a potential side effect of labetalol. Administering the dose in this case could further lower the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and guidance. Choice A is incorrect because administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is not relevant in this situation as telemetry monitoring is not the priority. Choice C is also not the priority in this case, as the focus should be on the client's bradycardia and the potential adverse effects of administering labetalol.
4. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?
- A. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina
- B. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer
- C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with diabetes
- D. A 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.
5. A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?
- A. This drug prevents infections associated with dialysis.
- B. This drug prevents deep vein thrombosis in older clients.
- C. This drug helps stimulate the production of red blood cells.
- D. This drug helps balance the level of phosphorus in the body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps correct this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, prevent deep vein thrombosis, or balance phosphorus levels in the body.
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