Nursing Elites

1. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of heart failure.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of bladder cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices B and C are important but not specific to pioglitazone use. Choice D is incorrect as bladder cancer is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

3. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Bone marrow suppression
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Paroxetine, used for generalized anxiety disorder, can cause drowsiness. Clients should be advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are potential side effects of other medications but are not commonly associated with paroxetine. Drowsiness is a common side effect for paroxetine and can impact a client's ability to perform tasks that require alertness.

5. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

• A. Difficulty starting urination
• B. Nosebleeds
• C. Muscle cramps
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

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