HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?
- A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
- B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
- C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
- D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Skin rash
- C. Hair loss
- D. Abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed linagliptin, it is crucial to educate them to report any signs of pancreatitis to their healthcare provider. Linagliptin can lead to pancreatitis, making it essential for clients to be vigilant for symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Timely reporting of these symptoms can aid in early intervention and management of pancreatitis.
4. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.
5. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?
- A. Administer sucralfate once a day
- B. Assess for secondary candida infection
- C. Monitor electrolyte imbalance
- D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.
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