Nursing Elites

1. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

2. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperchloremia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypophosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. This medication may cause drowsiness; avoid driving.
• B. This medication may take several weeks to take effect.
• C. This medication can be taken on an as-needed basis.
• D. This medication should be taken with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed and not expect immediate relief.

4. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

• A. Enuresis
• B. Lethargy
• C. Depression
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

5. Which assessment finding indicates that the expected outcome of administering donepezil to a client with Alzheimer's disease has been accomplished?

• A. Increased muscle strength and tone
• B. Fewer episodes of urinary incontinence
• C. Decreased confusion and improved mood
• D. Reversal of the disease process as evidenced by increased functioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Donepezil is a medication used for individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Its mechanism of action involves increasing acetylcholine levels by inhibiting its breakdown, which benefits cognitive function. The expected outcome of administering donepezil is a decrease in confusion and an improvement in mood due to the medication's impact on neurotransmitters. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because donepezil does not primarily target muscle strength, urinary incontinence, or disease reversal; instead, it aims to slow down the progression of cognitive decline in Alzheimer's disease.

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