HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
- A. Calcium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
2. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?
- A. Give the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type results
- D. Administer hydrocodone/acetaminophen one tablet for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for the client?
- A. Auscultating the client's heart sounds
- B. Provide the client with a diversionary activity
- C. Encourage deep breathing
- D. Maintain a patent intravenous access
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing a diversionary activity is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote comfort for a client with pericarditis. This intervention helps to distract the patient and reduce discomfort by focusing their attention elsewhere. Auscultating heart sounds, while important for monitoring the condition, does not directly address the client's comfort. Encouraging deep breathing can be beneficial for some conditions but may not be specifically aimed at promoting comfort in pericarditis. Maintaining a patent intravenous access is essential for treatment access and management of the condition, but it does not directly promote comfort for the client.
4. A client post-thyroidectomy is being monitored for signs of hypocalcemia. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse be most concerned about?
- A. Tingling in the hands and around the mouth.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the hands and around the mouth. This symptom is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently damaged during surgery. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are not specific to hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice D) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than hypocalcemia.
5. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
- A. Olfactory nerve
- B. Optic nerve
- C. Trigeminal nerve
- D. Vagus nerve
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
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