which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants
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HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

2. What is the first step in using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who has collapsed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts. This is the first step in using an AED as the device will guide you through the process of analyzing the heart rhythm and delivering a shock if necessary. Choice A, applying the pads to the chest, comes after turning on the AED. Checking the patient's pulse (Choice C) is not necessary before using an AED as the device is specifically designed to assess the need for defibrillation. Ensuring the area is clear (Choice D) is important for safety but is not the initial step in using an AED.

3. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

5. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.

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