Nursing Elites

1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

2. What is an essential nursing action before administering a blood transfusion?

• A. Checking the patient’s blood pressure
• B. Verifying the blood type and patient identity with another nurse
• C. Flushing the IV line with saline
• D. Administering pre-transfusion medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and patient identity with another nurse is crucial before administering a blood transfusion. This step helps prevent transfusion reactions and ensures that the correct blood is given to the right patient. Checking the patient’s blood pressure, although important, is not directly related to verifying blood type and patient identity. Flushing the IV line with saline is a good practice but is not as critical as confirming the blood type and patient identity. Administering pre-transfusion medications would come after verifying the blood type and patient identity.

3. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

4. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?

• A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
• B. Reduces cerebral edema
• C. Dehydrates the brain
• D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.

5. A client is post-operative day two from a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse notices the surgical wound is red and warm to the touch. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Apply an ice pack to the incision site.
• B. Monitor the client's temperature.
• C. Document the findings and continue to monitor.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when a nurse notices redness and warmth at the surgical wound post total hip arthroplasty is to notify the healthcare provider. These signs may indicate an infection, and prompt evaluation by the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice B) is important but not the priority when signs of infection are present. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor (Choice C) is necessary but should be accompanied by notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention.

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