HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
2. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
3. A registered nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution. The client has a central line, and this is the first bag he will receive. Which of the following is the most essential piece of equipment to obtain prior to hanging the bag?
- A. Blood glucose meter
- B. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor
- C. Electronic infusion pump
- D. Urine test strips
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An electronic infusion pump is essential for administering TPN to ensure accurate delivery and avoid complications such as fluid overload or improper nutrient delivery. The pump helps regulate the flow rate precisely, which is crucial when infusing TPN. Monitoring the client's blood glucose is important but not immediately necessary before hanging the TPN bag. A noninvasive blood pressure monitor is not directly related to administering TPN and is not the most essential equipment needed for this procedure. Urine test strips are not required for administering TPN via a central line and are not essential equipment for this specific task.
4. A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?
- A. Encourage wearing tight clothing on the affected arm.
- B. Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm.
- C. Recommend the client sleep on the affected side.
- D. Suggest frequent massage of the affected arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.
5. A 12-year-old child is receiving a blood transfusion via an infusion pump and begins to complain of 'itchy' skin 15 minutes after the unit of blood is started. The child appears flushed. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin
- B. Stop the transfusion
- C. Inspect the infusion site
- D. Obtain the vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial when signs of a transfusion reaction, such as itching and flushing, occur. This action is taken to prevent further exposure to the potentially harmful transfused blood. Applying lotion to the skin, inspecting the infusion site, or obtaining vital signs can be important but are secondary to stopping the transfusion to ensure the safety of the child. Applying lotion may not address the underlying issue of a possible transfusion reaction. Inspecting the infusion site and obtaining vital signs can be done after stopping the transfusion, as patient safety is the top priority in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access