Nursing Elites

1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

2. A registered nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution. The client has a central line, and this is the first bag he will receive. Which of the following is the most essential piece of equipment to obtain prior to hanging the bag?

• A. Blood glucose meter
• B. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor
• C. Electronic infusion pump
• D. Urine test strips

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An electronic infusion pump is essential for administering TPN to ensure accurate delivery and avoid complications such as fluid overload or improper nutrient delivery. The pump helps regulate the flow rate precisely, which is crucial when infusing TPN. Monitoring the client's blood glucose is important but not immediately necessary before hanging the TPN bag. A noninvasive blood pressure monitor is not directly related to administering TPN and is not the most essential equipment needed for this procedure. Urine test strips are not required for administering TPN via a central line and are not essential equipment for this specific task.

3. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.

4. What is the first action a healthcare professional should take when a patient’s nasogastric (NG) tube becomes clogged?

• A. Flush the tube with water
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Attempt to aspirate the clog with a syringe
• D. Administer a medication to dissolve the clog

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient's nasogastric (NG) tube becomes clogged, the first action to take is to attempt to aspirate the clog with a syringe. This is a standard and initial step to clear the blockage in the tube. Flushing the tube with water (Choice A) may not address the specific clog; repositioning the patient (Choice B) is not directly related to clearing the tube. Administering a medication to dissolve the clog (Choice D) should only be considered after simpler methods like aspiration have been attempted.

5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

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