in a group therapy setting one member is very demanding repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time the nurses best response woul
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam

1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

2. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.

3. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.

4. The HCP gives a pregnant woman a prescription for one prenatal vitamin with iron daily and tells her that she needs to increase foods in her diet because her hemoglobin is 8.2 grams/dL. When a list of iron-rich foods is given to the client, she tells the PN that she is a vegetarian and does not eat anything that "bleeds." Which instruction should the PN provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vegetarians can increase their iron intake through plant-based sources such as green leafy vegetables, oatmeal, and legumes, which are rich in iron.

5. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.

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