you have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy you are instructing him about what to do when he gets home which of the following would y
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam

1. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.

2. A client who is receiving chemotherapy has developed stomatitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is assisting with the care of this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing gentle and meticulous mouth care is critical for a client with stomatitis as it helps prevent further irritation and infection of the mucous membranes. Keeping the room environment free of unpleasant odors (Choice A) is important for the client's comfort but not directly related to managing stomatitis. Gathering supplies for protective environmental precautions (Choice B) is not relevant to addressing stomatitis. Assisting the client with feeding at meal times (Choice C) is important for overall care but does not specifically target the care needed for stomatitis.

3. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

4. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

5. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.

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