Nursing Elites

1. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?

• A. Resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling
• B. Elevate the extremity for 24 – 48 hours
• C. Apply ice to the area involved intermittently
• D. Report severe pain to the physician immediately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.

2. The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?

• A. Assist the client with a hot bath
• B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
• C. Face the client directly when speaking
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.

3. A client who had a right total shoulder replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse emphasize to the client to prevent complications?

• A. Avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon.
• B. Perform shoulder exercises to regain strength.
• C. Use a sling at all times, even during sleep.
• D. Apply heat to the shoulder to reduce stiffness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon. After a total shoulder replacement, it is essential to protect the new joint to prevent dislocation or injury. Lifting heavy objects prematurely can lead to complications. While performing shoulder exercises is important for strength, they should be done as per the healthcare provider's instructions to avoid strain on the new joint. Using a sling at all times, as in choice C, is not necessary once the client has regained enough strength and mobility. Applying heat, as in choice D, may not be recommended post-surgery; cold therapy is often preferred to reduce swelling and pain.

4. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

5. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

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