HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?
- A. Resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling
- B. Elevate the extremity for 24 – 48 hours
- C. Apply ice to the area involved intermittently
- D. Report severe pain to the physician immediately
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.
2. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?
- A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
- B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
- C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
- D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.
3. The PN is reviewing care instructions with a client who has diabetic retinopathy and is experiencing glare around lights. What should the PN reinforce with the client?
- A. Cover eyes with moist, cool compresses to reduce glare
- B. Make adjustments to personal schedule to avoid driving at night
- C. Exert pressure on the inner canthus when tearing occurs
- D. Apply an eye shield at bedtime after instilling eye drops
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding driving at night is recommended for clients experiencing glare around lights due to diabetic retinopathy. This can help reduce the risk of accidents and visual discomfort. Making adjustments to the personal schedule to avoid nighttime driving is a practical approach to manage the glare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because covering eyes with compresses, exerting pressure on the inner canthus, or applying an eye shield are not effective strategies for managing glare associated with diabetic retinopathy.
4. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
5. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate a complication of enteral tube feeding?
- A. Abdominal distension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased bowel sounds
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal distension in a patient receiving enteral tube feeding may indicate a complication such as intolerance to feeding, delayed gastric emptying, or obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common sign of gastrointestinal issues related to enteral tube feeding. Weight gain is typically an expected outcome if the patient is receiving adequate nutrition. Decreased bowel sounds may indicate decreased motility but are not specific to enteral tube feeding complications. Diarrhea can occur due to various reasons, including infections, medications, or dietary changes, but it is not the most likely indication of a complication in enteral tube feeding.
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