HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. To promote wound healing
- C. To reduce postoperative pain
- D. To maintain body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.
2. A male client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is withdrawn, isolates himself in the day room, and answers questions with one or two-word responses. This morning, the practical nurse observes that he is diaphoretic and is pacing in the hall. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Persuade the client to lie down
- B. Provide a drink high in electrolytes
- C. Observe the client during the shift
- D. Measure appropriate vital signs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring vital signs is crucial in this situation as it helps to determine if the client is experiencing a physical health issue or if the symptoms are related to a mental health crisis, such as anxiety or agitation. The presence of diaphoresis and pacing may indicate physiological changes requiring immediate attention. Providing a drink high in electrolytes or persuading the client to lie down may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Simply observing the client during the shift without taking necessary actions to assess his physiological status may delay appropriate intervention.
3. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?
- A. Ensure that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth
- B. Have the mother reposition the infant from the cradle to the football hold
- C. Check for engorgement and assess the nipples for cracks or lesions
- D. Apply a warm compress to the breast for 10 minutes before each feeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.
4. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?
- A. Obtain emergency help
- B. Feel for a carotid pulse
- C. Bring a glucometer to the room
- D. Check the blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.
5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
- A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
- B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
- C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
- D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
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