what is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices scds to a patients legs postoperatively
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

2. A client with peripheral neuropathy due to cirrhosis is at risk for injury. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is critical as peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased sensation and increased risk of trauma. This measure helps prevent wounds, ulcers, and other complications. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) can worsen symptoms and cause burns due to decreased sensation. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) may help reduce swelling but does not directly address the risk of injury. Assessing for jaundice (Choice D) is important in cirrhosis but is not directly related to the client's risk of injury due to peripheral neuropathy.

3. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

5. The practical nurse is caring for a client whose urine drug screen is positive for cocaine. Which behavior is this client likely to exhibit during cocaine withdrawal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Powerful craving for more. During cocaine withdrawal, individuals often experience intense cravings for the drug, along with symptoms such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety. These cravings can be overpowering and lead to a strong desire to seek out more cocaine to alleviate the withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as elevated energy level, euphoria, and high self-esteem are more associated with the effects of cocaine rather than withdrawal symptoms. Withdrawal from cocaine is characterized by the opposite, such as fatigue, low mood, and intense cravings.

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