Nursing Elites

1. An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?

• A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
• B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
• C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
• D. The PN will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.

2. When preparing a sterile field for a procedure, which action should the nurse take to maintain sterility?

• A. Place sterile items around the sterile field
• B. Keep hands below waist level to avoid contamination
• C. Open the sterile package away from the body
• D. Avoid reaching over the sterile field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain sterility when preparing a sterile field, it is essential to avoid reaching over the sterile field. This action can introduce contaminants from the nurse's clothing or unsterile areas, compromising the sterility of the field. Placing sterile items around the sterile field (choice A) is incorrect as it may increase the risk of contamination by extending the area where non-sterile items may come in contact. Keeping hands below waist level (choice B) is also incorrect as it does not prevent contamination effectively. Opening the sterile package away from the body (choice C) is incorrect since it exposes the contents to the nurse's body, which is not sterile.

3. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

4. During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?

• A. Slight increase in blood pressure
• B. Elevated temperature and chills
• C. Mild nausea
• D. Slight headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.

5. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

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