HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?
- A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
- B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
- C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
- D. The PN will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.
2. After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
- B. To prevent hip dislocation.
- C. To improve circulation in the legs.
- D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.
3. At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?
- A. Offer to administer a prescribed PRN analgesic
- B. Obtain a finger stick capillary glucose level
- C. Determine if the client's bladder feels distended
- D. Note the most recent white blood cell count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.
4. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
- A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
- B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
- C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
- D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
5. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
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