HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?
- A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
- B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
- C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
- D. The PN will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.
2. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
3. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Confirm that the UAP completed hand hygiene correctly
- B. Instruct the UAP to wash the hands for one minute
- C. Ask the UAP why the hands were so obviously soiled
- D. Advise the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for the client?
- A. Auscultating the client's heart sounds
- B. Provide the client with a diversionary activity
- C. Encourage deep breathing
- D. Maintain a patent intravenous access
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing a diversionary activity is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote comfort for a client with pericarditis. This intervention helps to distract the patient and reduce discomfort by focusing their attention elsewhere. Auscultating heart sounds, while important for monitoring the condition, does not directly address the client's comfort. Encouraging deep breathing can be beneficial for some conditions but may not be specifically aimed at promoting comfort in pericarditis. Maintaining a patent intravenous access is essential for treatment access and management of the condition, but it does not directly promote comfort for the client.
5. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
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