HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include
- A. Formula or breast milk
- B. Broth and tea
- C. Rice cereal and apple juice
- D. Gelatin and ginger ale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.
2. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
- D. Decreased serum potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.
4. The LPN/LVN is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?
- A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle.
- B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant.
- C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes.
- D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, a lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. During lactation, women have increased nutritional needs, including protein, to support milk production for their infants. Protein is essential for proper growth and development. While choice A, a college-age track runner with a sprained ankle, may require protein for tissue repair, the lactating woman's need is greater due to the demands of breastfeeding. Choice C, a school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes, may have specific dietary considerations related to diabetes management but does not necessarily require additional protein intake compared to a lactating woman. Choice D, an elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer, may need protein for wound healing, but the nutritional need for a lactating woman is higher to support her infant's growth.
5. When evaluating the effectiveness of a client's nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Determine if the expected outcomes were realistic
- B. Obtain current client data to compare with expected outcomes
- C. Modify the nursing interventions to achieve the client's goals
- D. Review related professional standards of care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After reviewing the expected outcomes in the plan of care, the nurse should obtain current client data to compare with these outcomes. This step is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because determining the realism of expected outcomes comes after assessing current client data. Choice C is incorrect as modifying nursing interventions should be based on the data comparison rather than done immediately after reviewing expected outcomes. Choice D is also incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step in evaluating care effectiveness.
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