Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous heparin injections. The abdomen has a layer of subcutaneous fat and a good blood supply, making it an ideal site for subcutaneous injections. Using the deltoid muscle for heparin injections is not appropriate as it is typically used for intramuscular injections. The ventrogluteal site is more suitable for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?

• A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
• B. A client who has heart failure
• C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. A client who has abdominal ascites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

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