a nurse in a providers office is preparing to assess a clients skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination which of the following findings sh
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1. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.

3. When teaching a client how to administer medication through a jejunostomy tube, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to flush the tube before and after each medication administration. This helps prevent clogging and ensures the medication is delivered properly. Mixing medications with enteral feeding (choice B) is incorrect as medications should be administered separately. Pushing tablets through the tube (choice C) is not recommended as they should be properly dissolved before administration. Mixing all crushed medications before dissolving them in water (choice D) is incorrect; medications should be dissolved individually to avoid interactions or inconsistencies in dosages.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Is unable to swallow foods by mouth.' Tube feeding is prescribed when a client is unable to safely swallow food by mouth but has a functional gastrointestinal tract. Option B, 'Has a gastrointestinal obstruction,' is incorrect as tube feeding is not typically prescribed for this reason. Option C, 'Requires additional caloric intake to support healing,' is incorrect because tube feeding is specifically for clients who are unable to swallow. Option D, 'Is at risk for aspiration,' is also incorrect as tube feeding would not be the primary intervention for aspiration risk; other strategies to reduce aspiration risk would be implemented instead.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

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