Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
• B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
• C. Pale nail beds in both hands
• D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 400 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 300 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. Twenty minutes after starting a heat application, the client mentions that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the LPN/LVN?

• A. That indicates you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
• B. Your blood vessels are dilating and removing the heat from the site.
• C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
• D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct response. The body's receptors adapt to the heat over time, which can explain why the client no longer perceives the warmth from the heating pad. This phenomenon is known as thermal adaptation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the client not feeling the warmth does not necessarily mean they have derived the maximum benefit. Choice B incorrectly states that blood vessels dilating remove heat, which is not accurate. Choice C suggests increasing the temperature when the pad no longer feels warm, which could potentially lead to burns or discomfort for the client.

5. During an admission assessment, a nurse is documenting a client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Counsel the client on medication adherence.
• B. Assess the client for medication reactions.
• C. Compile a list of the client's current medications.
• D. Evaluate the client's understanding of medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an admission assessment, compiling a list of the client's current medications is crucial for accurate documentation and planning. This information helps prevent medication errors, identify potential interactions, and ensure continuity of care. While counseling the client on medication adherence (Choice A) is important, it is not the primary action when documenting medications. Assessing the client for medication reactions (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring side effects but not the immediate focus during documentation. Evaluating the client's understanding of medications (Choice D) is essential for education but does not address the immediate need for compiling a list of current medications.

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