HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. The nurse is preparing to provide wound care for a client. Which step should be done first?
- A. Don procedural gloves
- B. Remove the dressing
- C. Apply prescribed medications to the wound
- D. Don a pair of sterile gloves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to don procedural gloves first. Donning procedural gloves is essential to protect the nurse from contaminants while removing the old dressing. This step helps maintain aseptic technique and prevents the transfer of microorganisms. Removing the dressing (choice B) should follow after wearing gloves to prevent the spread of pathogens. Applying prescribed medications (choice C) should be done after the wound is cleaned and dressed. Donning a pair of sterile gloves (choice D) is not necessary for initial wound care; procedural gloves are sufficient for standard wound care.
2. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Confirm that the UAP completed hand hygiene correctly
- B. Instruct the UAP to wash the hands for one minute
- C. Ask the UAP why the hands were so obviously soiled
- D. Advise the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.
3. While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?
- A. Clubbed nails
- B. Splinter hemorrhages
- C. Longitudinal ridges
- D. Koilonychia or spoon nails
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.
4. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Insulin deficiency
- B. Overhydration
- C. Excess carbohydrate intake
- D. Excess insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.
5. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99