Community Health HESI Practice Exam

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Anemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

2. Which of the following characteristics apply to 2 to 3-year-old children?

A. Prefers to feed themselves
B. Eats very small nutritious meals a day rather than 3 large meals
C. Can speak in longer sentences
D. Can use a toothbrush properly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. During the age of 2 to 3 years old, children tend to eat very small, nutritious meals throughout the day rather than having three large meals. This behavior is typical for this age group as their appetites fluctuate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while children of this age may start to prefer feeding themselves and begin using a toothbrush with assistance, they typically do not speak in longer sentences at this stage.

3. The emphasis of community health nursing is on:

A. treatment of health problems
B. preventing problems and promoting optimum health
C. identification and assessment of health problems
D. illness end of the wellness-illness continuum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Community health nursing primarily focuses on preventive measures and promoting overall health within a community. Choice A is incorrect as treatment is not the main emphasis. Choice C is incorrect as identification and assessment are steps that may be involved but not the main focus. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the illness end rather than the preventive end of the wellness-illness continuum.

4. The home health nursing director is conducting an educational program for registered nurses and practical nurses about Medicare reimbursement. To obtain payment for Medicare services, what must be included in the client's record?

A. A prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made.
B. Documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit.
C. A copy of the client's health history and social security card.
D. A record of the preventative healthcare services provided during the visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Documentation of skilled care services is required for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare reimbursement is based on the provision of skilled care services, not on prescriptions or preventative healthcare services. Including a copy of the client's health history and social security card is not a requirement for Medicare reimbursement.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is

A. Trendelenburg
B. Prone
C. Semi-Fowler's
D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.