Nursing Elites

1. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

2. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

• A. BSN, RN
• B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
• C. Master's in public health
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

3. As a community organizer, the PHN facilitates the planning and implementation of program subjects in the community. In the light of the PHC approach, these programs/projects should be characterized by the following except:

• A. managed by the community leaders/members
• B. managed by non-government organizations for the people to ensure success
• C. compatible with available resources
• D. developmental in nature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of the PHC approach, programs should be characterized by being managed by community leaders/members (Choice A). This ensures community involvement and ownership. Programs should also be compatible with available resources (Choice C) to be sustainable and effective. Additionally, programs should be developmental in nature (Choice D), focusing on long-term improvements. Choice B is incorrect because programs should not be solely managed by non-government organizations; instead, they should be driven by the community to promote sustainability and empowerment.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.

5. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

• A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
• C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
• D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

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