a female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center the nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising pa
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HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

2. James is an 18-month-old child who has had a cough for 7 days with no general danger signs, a temperature of 37.5°C, and a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute. How will you classify James' breathing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Normal breathing.' A respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute is considered normal for an 18-month-old child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute falls within the normal range for a child of James' age and does not indicate slow, fast, or very fast breathing.

3. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

4. Which of the following BEST describes the strategies to address the nutrition problems of Filipinos related to non-communicable diseases?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: While considering food preferences of family members is important in promoting adherence to a healthy diet, the best strategies to address nutrition problems related to non-communicable diseases should focus on evidence-based approaches like aiming for an ideal body weight, building healthy nutrition-related practices, and choosing food wisely to improve overall health outcomes.

5. A client with a fractured femur is in Buck's traction. The nurse should assess for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Foot drop is a potential complication of prolonged immobility and improper positioning in traction. In Buck's traction, the lower extremity is suspended to immobilize and align the fractured femur. Prolonged suspension of the leg in traction can lead to nerve damage, specifically to the common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop. Urinary retention, constipation, and muscle spasms are not directly associated with Buck's traction and a fractured femur.

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