Nursing Elites

1. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

2. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. MMR
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Pneumococcal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Option A, MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, is not indicated during pregnancy. Option C, Human papillomavirus vaccine, is recommended for prevention of HPV infections but is not specifically indicated during pregnancy. Option D, Pneumococcal vaccine, is important for certain populations but is not the priority vaccine for a pregnant woman in this scenario.

3. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

4. Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Early detection and treatment
• C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness
• D. Health education

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.

5. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer history of smoking ask the occupational nurse for assistance with smoking cessation. The RN develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of OTC products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. Encourage the employees to disclose if they have joined another smoking cessation group.
• B. Ask the employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start back up again.
• C. Survey the employees about their smoking habits.
• D. Observe if the employees are smoking in the designated smoking areas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surveying the employees about their smoking habits provides measurable data on program effectiveness. By collecting data directly from the employees through surveys, the occupational nurse can track changes in smoking habits, frequency, and quantity of cigarettes smoked. This direct feedback allows for a more accurate assessment of the program's impact on smoking cessation. Choices A and B rely on self-disclosure and may not provide reliable or objective data. Choice D does not directly measure changes in smoking habits but rather observes behavior in designated areas, which may not reflect overall smoking cessation progress.

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