Nursing Elites

1. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

2. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

3. A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest risk for exposure?

• A. Playing with toys in a backyard flower garden
• B. Eating small amounts of grass while playing 'farm'
• C. Playing with cars on the pavement near burning leaves
• D. Throwing a ball to a neighborhood child who has poison ivy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Poison ivy can be contracted through smoke from burning plants, which can carry the urushiol oil that causes the rash. Playing near burning leaves would be the highest risk for exposure in this scenario. Choices A, B, and D do not involve direct contact with burning plants or leaves, making them lower-risk activities for exposure to poison ivy.

4. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

5. In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?

• A. Skin testing for tuberculosis.
• B. Glucose monitoring for diabetes.
• C. Blood work for cardiovascular disease.
• D. Height and weight for altered nutrition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.

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