Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

2. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

3. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Pleuritic pain on inspiration
• B. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 34 to 24
• D. Decrease in chest wall expansion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

5. An example of individual influences on health status would be:

• A. Cigarette smoking
• B. A parent with adult-onset diabetes
• C. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' because all the listed factors - cigarette smoking, a parent with adult-onset diabetes, and exposure to toxic substances in the workplace - can individually influence a person's health status. Cigarette smoking directly impacts health by increasing the risk of various diseases. Having a parent with adult-onset diabetes can also influence one's health due to genetic predisposition and lifestyle factors. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace can lead to health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not mutually exclusive but rather represent different aspects of individual influences on health status, making 'D' the most comprehensive and accurate answer.

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