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Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about
- A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
- B. Usual nutritional intake
- C. Family genetic disorders
- D. Maternal and paternal ages
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.
2. From January 1 to 15, 1996, there were 8 cases of Tetanus neonatorum in San Lazaro Hospital. There were two deaths. What is the case fatality ratio of this disease?
- A. 20%
- B. 30%
- C. 28%
- D. 25%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The case fatality ratio is calculated as (deaths/cases) * 100. In this case, there were 2 deaths out of 8 cases. Therefore, the calculation is (2/8) * 100 = 25%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation.
3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Constipation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.
4. Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?
- A. ''I may experience seizures if I stop the medication abruptly.''
- B. ''I may experience an increase in my heart rate for a few weeks.''
- C. ''I can expect to feel nervousness the first few weeks.''
- D. ''I can have a heart attack if I stop this medication suddenly.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased anteroposterior diameter
- B. Hyperresonance on percussion
- C. Increased breath sounds
- D. Prolonged expiratory phase
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolonged expiratory phase. In COPD, there is airflow obstruction leading to difficulty in exhaling air. This results in a prolonged expiratory phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased anteroposterior diameter is associated with conditions like barrel chest in emphysema, not COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typical in conditions like emphysema, not necessarily in COPD. Increased breath sounds are not a typical finding in COPD; instead, diminished breath sounds may be present due to air trapping.
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