Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is receiving lithium (Lithobid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Lithium can lead to hyponatremia by affecting sodium balance in the body. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely with lithium use. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with lithium therapy for bipolar disorder.

3. In the preparation of your health education plan, what is the first thing to do?

• A. Assess community needs for health education
• B. Identify the subjects for health teaching
• C. Specify your goals and objectives
• D. Identify who will provide support and the type of support to be provided

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess community needs for health education. This is the initial step in developing a health education plan as it helps in understanding the specific requirements of the community. Identifying subjects for teaching (choice B) comes after assessing needs. Specifying goals and objectives (choice C) is crucial but typically follows the assessment of community needs. Identifying support providers and types (choice D) is important but is not the first step in preparing a health education plan.

4. The Healthy People initiative is a national agenda that aims to:

• A. Provide healthcare to all citizens
• B. Reduce health disparities and improve the health of all Americans
• C. Promote medical research
• D. Develop new healthcare technologies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Healthy People initiative is a national agenda that focuses on reducing health disparities and improving the health of all Americans. Choice A is incorrect because the initiative is more about improving health outcomes and access rather than providing healthcare to all citizens. Choice C is not the main goal of the initiative, which is more about public health goals than medical research. Choice D is also not the primary aim of the Healthy People initiative, as it is more focused on setting objectives to improve public health.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is being taught about the use of Coumadin (warfarin) at home. Which of these should be emphasized to the client to avoid?

• A. Large indoor gatherings
• B. Exposure to sunlight
• C. Active physical exercise
• D. Foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods rich in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) by promoting blood clotting. It is crucial for clients on this medication to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary changes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the interaction of Coumadin (warfarin) with vitamin K. Large indoor gatherings, exposure to sunlight, and active physical exercise do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) in comparison to the interaction with foods rich in vitamin K.

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