the nurse is assessing a newborn infant and observes low set ears short palpebral fissures flat nasal bridge and indistinct philtrum a priority matern
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

3. Community health nurses help influence the health of communities through which of the following actions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Community health nurses play a crucial role in influencing the health of communities by engaging in health promotion activities and influencing health behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as community health nurses do not legislate health behavior but rather educate and promote healthy behaviors. Choice B is incorrect as while community health nurses may record health data, their main focus is on proactive health promotion and intervention, not just documenting health status. Choice D is incorrect because community health nurses actively work to influence health status and behaviors.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

5. A community health nurse is planning to implement an outreach program for a community group. Which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program when examining sources for funding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Identifying populations and individuals in need of healthcare services is essential when seeking funding for an outreach program. This criterion helps demonstrate the relevance and impact of the program on specific groups requiring healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because while addressing multiple health problems is important, identifying the target population in need of services is more critical for funding considerations. Choice C is incorrect as evaluating variations in health services and status, though valuable, is not directly related to securing funding. Choice D is incorrect as offering services in various community locations is a component of the program's implementation, not a criterion for funding.

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