hesi mental health practice questions HESI Mental Health Practice Questions - Nursing Elites
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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

2. For a female client with major depressive disorder reporting feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's risk for suicide. When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, it indicates a high risk of self-harm or suicide. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to assess the client's safety. Encouraging the client to join a support group (choice A) may be beneficial but not the priority at this time. Referring the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) (choice B) and suggesting daily exercise (choice D) are important interventions in managing depression but assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence due to the immediate safety concern.

3. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates her mannerisms. Which defense mechanism does the nurse recognize in this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Identification is the correct answer. It is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models themselves after someone they admire or feel close to. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, indicating identification. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Introjection is the internalization of external attitudes or voices, while repression involves suppressing unwanted thoughts or desires.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of depression. The nurse knows that which characteristic is most indicative of depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A negative view of self and the future (D) is a prominent characteristic of depression. It reflects the core symptoms of low self-esteem and hopelessness that are commonly associated with this condition. Grandiose ideation (A) and suspiciousness of others (C) are more indicative of other mental health disorders like paranoia. While self-destructive thoughts (B) can be present in depression, they are not as specific and common as the negative self-view and hopelessness, making option (D) the most indicative characteristic of depression.

5. A nurse determines that the wife of an alcoholic client is benefitting from attending an Al-Anon group when the nurse hears the wife say:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as the statement indicates the wife understands that her husband's behavior is not her fault and is benefitting from the group support. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests self-blame rather than recognizing the husband's responsibility. Choice C is incorrect as the benefit is related to emotional support and understanding, not just getting away from the husband. Choice D is incorrect as tolerating destructive behaviors is not a healthy outcome of attending support groups.

Similar Questions

A nurse determines that the wife of an alcoholic client is benefitting from attending an Al-Anon group when the nurse hears the wife say:
A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?
What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching about starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for major depressive disorder?
A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?
The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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