Nursing Elites

1. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the client's body image perception.
• B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
• C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
• D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

2. How should the RN respond to the mother?

• A. Ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child.
• B. Reassure the mother that her child will achieve some growth and development milestones.
• C. Determine if the mother has other children who do not have developmental disabilities.
• D. Encourage the mother to write her thoughts and feelings in a journal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child. This is crucial to assess for suicidal or homicidal thoughts, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the child. Reassuring the mother about achieving some milestones may not address her immediate emotional distress. Inquiring about other children's developmental status is not the priority when safety concerns are present. While journaling can be therapeutic, in this situation, addressing safety takes precedence.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse should monitor for which early sign of alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Seizures
• B. Visual hallucinations
• C. Tremors
• D. Delirium tremens

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are caused by hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system and are a common symptom during the early stages of withdrawal. Monitoring tremors is crucial as they can progress to more severe symptoms if not managed effectively. Seizures (Choice A) typically occur later in the withdrawal process and are a more severe symptom. Visual hallucinations (Choice B) usually manifest after tremors and are considered a mid-stage symptom. Delirium tremens (Choice D) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 2-3 days after the last drink, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and severe autonomic hyperactivity.

5. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

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