Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Distract the client with another activity.
• B. Allow the client to continue the behavior.
• C. Set a time limit for the behavior.
• D. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is the most therapeutic intervention for a client with OCD spending excessive time on compulsive behaviors. By expressing their feelings, the client can explore the underlying anxiety that drives the compulsion. This intervention also provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer support and help the client develop coping strategies.\n Choice A, distracting the client with another activity, may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.\n Choice B, allowing the client to continue the behavior, does not promote therapeutic progress and may perpetuate the compulsion.\n Choice C, setting a time limit for the behavior, may create additional stress for the client and does not address the underlying emotional issues associated with OCD.

2. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?

• A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
• C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.

3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event.
• B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
• C. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.
• D. Administer prescribed medications to manage symptoms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in developing coping strategies is an appropriate intervention for managing PTSD. This approach helps the client build resilience and learn how to effectively cope with symptoms. Choice A, encouraging the client to talk about the traumatic event, may not be appropriate as it can potentially re-traumatize the client. Referring the client to a PTSD support group, as in choice C, can be beneficial but may not be the most immediate intervention. Administering medications, as in choice D, is important in some cases, but focusing on coping strategies should be prioritized as a holistic approach to managing PTSD.

4. A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. This medication will help balance the chemicals in your brain.
• B. This medication needs to be taken regularly to be effective.
• C. This medication will start working immediately to improve your mood.
• D. You should take this medication only when you feel sad or depressed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.

5. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

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