Nursing Elites

1. The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)

• A. Purchase a gun for protection.
• B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
• C. Take a self-defense course focused on protection.
• D. Prepare a bag with extra clothes for self and children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing a code with family and friends is crucial in situations of intimate partner violence as it allows discreet communication for help without alerting the abuser. Having a pre-prepared bag with essentials like extra clothes is important to facilitate a quick exit if necessary. Purchasing a gun is not a recommended safety strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more danger. While taking a self-defense course focused on protection is beneficial, it is essential to avoid courses that emphasize retaliation, as they can increase the risk and escalate violence.

2. The nurse on the day shift receives report about a client with depression who was found on the floor in the morning. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assist the client to get out of bed and involved in an activity.
• B. Monitor the client’s appetite and sleep patterns.
• C. Assess the client’s feelings regarding the hospital stay.
• D. Explain that staff will check on the client every 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to engage in activities is the best intervention as it can help improve mood and prevent further decline in function. This intervention can also help the client regain a sense of control and purpose. Option B, monitoring appetite and sleep patterns, is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in this situation. Option C, assessing feelings about the hospital stay, is also important but addressing the client's physical safety and well-being should take precedence. Option D, explaining the frequency of staff checks, is not as effective in addressing the client's immediate needs for engagement and support.

3. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client's response to a new antianxiety medication. Which client statement indicates a positive response to the medication?

• A. “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.”
• B. “I am sleeping less and feel more energetic.”
• C. “I have not noticed any changes in my anxiety levels.”
• D. “I have more difficulty concentrating than before.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.” A positive response to antianxiety medication is characterized by reduced anxiety and increased relaxation. Choice B, which mentions sleeping less and feeling more energetic, suggests potential side effects rather than a positive response to the medication. Choice C indicates no change in anxiety levels, which is not indicative of a positive response. Choice D, mentioning difficulty concentrating, is also a sign of a negative response to antianxiety medication as it may suggest cognitive impairment.

4. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial.
• B. Projection.
• C. Rationalization.
• D. Splitting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.

5. A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I’ve been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN’s best response?

• A. “Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately.”
• B. “It’s important to monitor your calorie intake carefully.”
• C. “Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?”
• D. “The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.

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