HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.
2. In pediatric mental health, there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, resulting in long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in:
- A. Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved
- B. Increased stress in the family unit
- C. Markedly increased funding
- D. Premature termination of services
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Premature termination of services.' The lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, along with long waiting lists, can lead to premature termination of services for children in need of mental health support. Choice A, 'Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved,' is not directly related to the consequence mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'Increased stress in the family unit,' while a potential consequence, is not explicitly stated in the question as a direct result of the lack of resources. Choice C, 'Markedly increased funding,' is not a consequence but rather a potential solution to address the lack of resources.
3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
- A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
- B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
- C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
- D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.
4. A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?
- A. Not sleeping for several days.
- B. Wishing to be with the deceased significant other.
- C. Lack of interest in usual activities.
- D. Eating very little.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important client statement for the RN to explore in this scenario is the client not sleeping for several days. The lack of sleep is a critical indicator of possible severe depression or suicidal ideation that requires immediate attention. While expressing a wish to be with the deceased significant other, having a lack of interest in usual activities, and eating very little are concerning, the immediate focus should be on the client's severe sleep disturbance as it can pose an immediate risk to their well-being and safety.
5. After surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests a specific nurse be assigned to his care and becomes belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Reassure the client that his request will be met whenever possible.
- B. Advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests.
- C. Ask the client to explain why he constantly requests the nurse.
- D. Encourage the client to verbalize his feelings about the nurse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse is to advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may attempt to manipulate situations to their advantage. By setting clear boundaries and explaining that assignments are not based on client preferences, the nurse helps prevent manipulation and maintains a professional approach to care. Reassuring the client about his requests (Choice A) may encourage the inappropriate behavior to continue. Asking the client to explain his requests (Choice C) may further fuel the manipulation by providing an opportunity for the client to justify his actions. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of manipulating the assignment process and may inadvertently reinforce the behavior.
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