Nursing Elites

1. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

2. Which client statement suggests that the client is using a defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide.
• B. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong.
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility.
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client is projecting their own aggressive tendencies onto the psychiatric aide by suggesting hitting the wall instead of the aide. This statement reflects projection, a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to others. Choice B reflects externalization rather than projection, Choice C reflects rationalization, and Choice D reflects denial.

3. A male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. After transfer to the mental health unit, the client is told he has liver damage. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

• A. Eat a high-carbohydrate, low-fat, low-protein diet.
• B. Do not take any over-the-counter medication.
• C. Call the crisis hotline if feeling lonely.
• D. Avoid exposure to large crowds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan is to not take any over-the-counter medication. This is crucial because over-the-counter medications can potentially interact with the damaged liver and worsen the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical in the context of liver damage from an acetaminophen overdose. While diet is important for overall health, specifically for liver damage, avoiding over-the-counter medications takes precedence. Calling the crisis hotline for loneliness and avoiding exposure to large crowds are important considerations but are not directly related to the client's liver damage from the acetaminophen overdose.

4. A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discuss why the client checks the locks frequently
• B. Ask the client why she checks the locks
• C. Plan a daily list of activities to be carried out
• D. Determine the type and size of the locks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why she checks the locks. By doing so, the nurse can help the client gain insight into the underlying anxiety that drives this behavior and assist her in developing new adaptive coping strategies. Choice A is not as effective as directly asking the client about her behavior. Choice C focuses on planning activities but does not address the root cause of the client's behavior. Choice D is irrelevant to addressing the client's repeated checking behavior.

5. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

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