Nursing Elites

1. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

2. When developing a plan of care for a male client admitted with delirium tremens, who is dehydrated, experiencing auditory hallucinations, has a bruised, swollen tongue, and is confused, what action should the RN include to ensure the client is physiologically stable?

• A. Encourage oral fluids.
• B. Monitor vital signs.
• C. Keep the room dark.
• D. Apply ice to his tongue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is the priority action to ensure the physiological stability of a client with delirium tremens. In this scenario, the client's dehydration, confusion, and other symptoms necessitate close monitoring of vital signs to assess their condition accurately. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) is important for hydration but does not directly assess physiological stability. Keeping the room dark (Choice C) may help with hallucinations but is not the primary intervention for physiological stability. Applying ice to the tongue (Choice D) addresses a symptom but is less critical compared to monitoring vital signs in this situation.

3. A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, a behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the client why she checks the locks.
• B. Discuss checking the time frequently.
• C. Determine the type and size of the locks.
• D. Plan a list of activities to be carried out daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Planning a list of daily activities can help the client manage her time better and reduce the impact of her compulsive behaviors. This structured approach can assist the client in organizing her day, potentially reducing the need for excessive lock checking. Option A is incorrect because simply asking why the client checks the locks may not address the underlying issue effectively. Option B is not relevant to the compulsive behavior of checking locks and does not offer a practical solution. Option C does not directly address the client's compulsive behavior but focuses on the physical attributes of the locks, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

4. A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?

• A. Blood pressure readings of 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg.
• B. Pulse rate of 68-78 BPM.
• C. Temperature of 99.5-99.7°F.
• D. Respiration rate of 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.

5. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.

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