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Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include in the care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with SIADH is to restrict fluid intake. SIADH leads to water retention and dilution of sodium levels in the body, resulting in hyponatremia. Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering potassium supplements (Choice C) is not directly related to managing SIADH. Increasing sodium intake (Choice D) is contraindicated because it can worsen hyponatremia in clients with SIADH.

3. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being educated by the nurse about the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that may indicate a more severe drop in blood glucose levels. Immediate reporting of confusion is crucial as it could progress rapidly to unconsciousness or seizures, necessitating prompt intervention. Shakiness and sweating are common early signs of hypoglycemia but may not require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms present. Increased thirst is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, and while it should be monitored, it is not a symptom requiring immediate reporting.

4. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings would be expected?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), there is an excess of ketone bodies produced due to the breakdown of fatty acids for energy, leading to metabolic acidosis. An increased anion gap is a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA. The increased anion gap is a result of the accumulation of ketoacids and lactic acid in the blood, contributing to metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is an increased anion gap. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, urine ketones are increased due to the breakdown of fatty acids, and serum bicarbonate is usually decreased as it is consumed in an attempt to buffer the acidosis.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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